I have a friend that has been married for 10 years. She has a history of urinary tract infections/UTI and yeast infections (gets UTI, takes antibiotic, then gets yeast infection). She took antibiotics for a UTI, and thought she was getting a "yeast" infection and used a 1-Day yeast medicine but her symptoms didn’t get better. She tells her husband that she’s going to get an appointment with the OB/GYN and he tells her he just started having a little discomfort while peeing/urinating. She says maybe he has a UTI or maybe her infection is causing him symptoms. She tells the OB/GYN and he tests her for STDs. His doc did the same. Her doc says she looks like she’s got bacterial vaginosis, his doc says he’s got urethritis. Later that week they get test results: She comes back positive for gonorrhea, he comes back negative. She swears that she has been faithful but so does he, and again his test was negative. She asks her Dr. if she could have gotten a false-positive and he says the tests are highly accurate. I found at least one news story where 5 women in Hawaii got false-positives (2 of them really had bacterial vaginosis, the other 3 had no infection at all). What I’m trying to get at is this: Is it possible that the gonorrhea test is perceived as highly accurate because the results usually don’t get challenged? I ‘m thinking that the majority of people being tested for STDs engage in sexual behavior that puts them at risk, therefore, they just accept that the test gave a true positive. Or they are in shock and trust their healthcare provider, so they don’t question it. Besides, "highly accurate" is not the same as "100% accurate" so doesn’t that statement in itself prove that false-positives happen?

Another thing, she said they had sex on Tuesday and she felt irritated Wednesday and used the 1-Day treatment, he started having discomfort on Friday, which sounds like she infected him, but he came back negative. Doesn’t that add to the possibility of her having a false-positive?

So please, serious answers only that address the false-positive issue. She’s already been told by her doc "highly accurate" and stuff like, "have you seen his results?" (she has),"if you didn’t cheat, he did" and "maybe he was already being treated" (I seriously don’t think he would have mentioned his problem to her if he was unfaithful and already knew he was being treated–why would he waste money on another Dr.’s appointment?). It just doesn’t seem to add up and I have a lot of faith in these 2 people and would love to be able to help them through this with a little support on the false-positive side.

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