Can it be possible that me and my partner of 2 years have been positive for Chlamydia all this time ?

Can it be possible that me and my partner of 2 years have been positive for Chlamydia all this time and then for him to have developed symptoms of acute infection. Before he developed the acute symptoms he had 1.5 months of unilateral flank pain that fluctuated from moderate to minimal. The acute symptoms in this matter began as follows: neon green urine for one day, next day thin clear discharge and meatal irritation with a sensation of genital heaviness. When he developed the symptoms they lasted for one week. They then went away only to resurface two weeks later. During this time of reappearance there has been no fever, no adenopathy, no suprapubic pain, no dysuria, no testicular pain and minimal discharge. The flank pain has been ever present and pronounced with percussion.
During the two years we have been together he has had intermittent frequent urination after sex with moderate discomfort and some difficulty with starting flow. We assumed it was chemical irritation secondary to lubricants. Further history reveals that, many years ago, before we ever met, he had a similar even that was never treated which last for only one week with minimal discharge. Roughly one year after that he had a bout of bilateral sever flank pain which a PA treated with narcotics assuming bilateral calculi, unlikely I know. He is unsure if fever was present. He also states for years he periodically had some spotting in his under garments but thought it must have been due to nocturnal tumescence. He has never been tested for G/C. Farther history is only significant for a severe cold with one week’s duration and two subsequent weeks of sinus pressure and nasal congestion. His symptoms of apparent chlamydial infection began 43 days later.
Labs today at his local small town doctors’ office were only a UA, which was reportedly unremarkable. No culture was ordered (I was surprised and frustrated), no CBC was ordered, no US of kidney was available in office nor was a G/C. He was given empiric amoxicillin with a loading dose of 1500mg today to be followed by 500 mg BID for 9 days.
I will be tested tomorrow though I am asymptomatic (as many as 40-50% of men are I know). I was G/C negative before we met. I have had no G/C testing during our time together, though we do get HIV testing every 6 months as well as an RPR and Hep C screening. We both have been vaccinated for Hep A and B.
Can it be that he has had subacute symptoms of Chlamydia that became acutely symptomatic post rhinovirus convalascence. Could it be chemical irritation from lubricants or a perfumed soap he used for a lubricant 3 days before this presentation? Is it possible he contracted Chlamydia from having become sick while in NY in a bathroom stall where he threw up in a toilet while placing his hands on the floor and seat despite my fervently demanding he did not. I am unsure if he immediately urinated after this (graphic and revolting I know). Is it possible he contracted tricamonus from a wet sink/soap he used to as a lubricant while staying with his cousin (also graphic)? She and her husband are being treated for it now. I am aware all the above are highly unlikely.
He denies any infidelity and obviously I am grasping here to believe him. Please help me out if you can/will. This has been very difficult for me and the relationship. My doctor presumes he cheated. I’m fearful he has and am aware that other much worse things may have been contracted if he has been.
Regards, Doubting Thomas

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Tagged with: 5 months • acute infection • acute symptoms • calculi • chemical irritation • chlamydia • chlamydial infection • clear discharge • doctors office • fever • flank pain • frequent urination • green urine • lubricants • moderate discomfort • narcotics • nasal congestion • partner • Percussion • Sensation • sinus pressure • suprapubic pain • testicular pain • tumescence

Filed under: Infidelity Warning Signs

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